Keep in mind that the 510(k) owner has very little to do with who physically manufacturers the device. It is very common for companies to own the design and 510(k) but utilize OEMs to actually manufacture the device, rather than make it themselves.
I am having to make a few assumptions here, but I am assuming that "the biotech" developed the "system" of using the equipment and the assay, and has been responsible for the designs and testing. As such, I would expect them to submit and own the 510(k) regardless of who physically makes the assay.
Putting my quality hat on though, you should make clear who is responsible for what, including submissions (and complaints/MDR filing, recall decision making etc etc), in your quality agreement with the vendor who will be making the assay.
g-
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Ginger Glaser RAC
Vice-President, Quality and Regulatory Affairs
Maplewood MN
United States
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Original Message:
Sent: 22-Jun-2017 10:02
From: Anonymous Member
Subject: Who "owns" the 510(k)?
This message was posted by a user wishing to remain anonymous
I am preparing a premarket (510(k)) submission to demonstrate substantial equivalence of an IVD assay and the instrument that the assay is required to run on. The instrument is manufactured onsite by the biotech, but because of limited resources, the assay may need to be manufactured offsite by a vendor. Will sourcing out the manufacture of the assay change the "ownership" of the 510(k) since it the assay that is being submitted to demonstrate substantial equivalence? Should the biotech manufacture the assay that will be used during the clinical study for FDA submission?